Is sexual/physical attraction prejudice in disguise?

If you argue on the primal side of human nature, then we can say that man simply strives to secure the best mate for himself, be it conscious or not. Therefore whether you consider it a form of prejudice, which is essentially a man-made concept, is not of much consequence for I think there can be absolutely no reason why we can say this form of prejudice is unethical. What I feel we are dealing with here are linguistic definitions rather than emotive connotations associated with the word "prejudice".

Jam it back in, in the dark.

I once wrote in an essay that prejudice was purely a form of preference stripped of its linguistically negative connotations and my english teacher frowned upon my argument, adding that it was an "unreasonable" form of bias/preference. I guess it's tough for people to isolate purely conceptual issues from their emotions.

How ya doing, buddy?

What form of preference would you consider rational or substantiated, then? Every reason elicits another reason as justification for itself and this process goes on, ad infinitum, until we realise that all we have are baseless assumptions - guesses - that it is by God's will that a certain observation is so.

For example, I prefer orange juice to apple juice because orange juice has a sour taste that I claim packs a punch. How vindicated is that? It is true insofar as most orange juices have a higher acidic (citric) content than apple juice, giving it its predominantly sour characteristic. Why is the acidic content higher? Well, simply because orange contains certain molecules that contain specific functional groups. Why then do the atoms in the orange arrange themselves in such a peculiar arrangement? The list of reasons keeps lengthening until in frustration one has to inexorably conclude on a baseless assumption that it is simply "God's Will" that such is so. Faith is essentially an assumption in itself, a baseless premise on which logic is built, and that is the modus operandi of this world. How then can preference be classified as rational or founded if all behaviour is based upon a rudimentary irrationality?

If there is no rational preference, then there cannot be irrational preference.

This was my counter-argument to my teacher's comment.

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